Can anyone explain me in a simple way? But actually, one or both of them has already disengaged emotionally from the marriage The question asked covers more ground than just have or has
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I think op's example is just one example and the question asked is in order to know if who agrees with the verb when who is.
The answer in both instances is 'have'
It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on. What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months
I have a question about where to use is and has Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned. Such as has, will, shall, should, ought to, must etc And he gave an example of following sentence
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He will has written the essay
(right) he will have written the essay But you don't use has with the auxiliary verb do, does or did in an interrogative or negative sentence You always use the root form of the. Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been
1) the idea has deleted vs. 2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two? Does she have a child In american english, you need to use the auxiliaries do and does with the main verb have to form a question in the present tense
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Present perfect tense specifies an action that has recently finished Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is. She doesn't has a book She doesn't have a book
Why is the first sentence wrong We use 'has' with singular, and 'she' is singular. I have read a similar question here but that one talks about the usage of has/have with reference to anyone Here, i wish to ask a question of the form
